Monday, May 6, 2013

MCQs Micronutrients - Vitamins section -1

1. The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is
(a) Epigastric pain and bowel upset
(b) Black stools
(c) Staining of teeth
(d) Metallic taste

2. Iron sorbitol-citric acid differs from iron dextran in that
(a) It cannot be injected i.v.
(b) It is not excreted in urine
(c) It is not bound to transferritin in plasma
(d) It produces fewer side effects

3. Which of the following is true about iron therapy ?
(a) Haemoglobin response to intramuscular iron is faster than with oral iron therapy
(b) Iron must be given orally except in pernicious anaemia
(c) Prophylactic iron therapy must be given during pregnancy
(d) Infants on breast feeding do not require medicinal iron

4. Concentrations of retinal in plasma in excess of _____ μg/dl usually are diagnostic of hypervitaminosis A
(a) 10 (b) 50
(c) 100 (d) 200

5. Megaloblastic anaemia occurs in
(a) Vitamin B12 but not folic acid deficiency
(b) Folic acid but not Vitamin B12 deficiency
(c) Either Vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency
(d) Only combined Vitamin B12 + folic acid deficiency

6. The daily dietary requirement of Vitamin B12 by an adult is
(a) 1–3 μg (b) 50–100 μg
 (c) 0.1–0.5 μg (d) 1–3 μg

7. Which of the following factor(s) is/are required for the absorption of Vitamin B12 ingested in physiological amounts ?
(a) Gastric acid
(b) Gastric intrinsic factor
(c) Transcobalamine
(d) Both (a) and (b)

8. Hydroxocobalamine differs from cyanocobalamine in that
(a) It is more protein bound and better retained
(b) It is beneficial in tobacco amblyopia
(c) It benefits haematological but not neurological manifestations of Vit B12 deficiencey
(d) Both (a) and (b)

9. Megaloblastic anemia is caused by deficiency of
(a) Iron (b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin C (d) All of the above

10. Vitamin B12 is a required co-factor for the following reaction
(a) Conversion of methylmalonyl-CoA to succinyl-CoA
(b) Conversion of 5-CH3-H4-folate to H4-folate
(c) Conversion of homocysteine to methionine
(d) All of the above

1. a 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. a 7. d 8. d 9. b 10. d

MCQs Micronutrients - Vitamins

1 Physiologically carnitine plays following role
(a) Important for oxidation of fatty acids
(b) Decreases aerobic metabolism of carbohydrates
(c) Decreases rate of oxidative phosphorylation
(d) All of the above

2. Patients receiving iron therapy should be warned about
(a) Dizziness
(b) Ringing in the ears
(c) Danger of sunlight
(d) Blackening of the stool
(e) Paresthesia

3. Therapeutically vitamin B1 has been employed most successfully in the treatment of
(a) Microcytic anemia
(b) Pellagra
(c) Scurvy
(d) Beriberi
(e) Macrocytic anemia

4. Magnesium ion is necessary in
(a) Stimulating enzyme systems
(b) Muscular contraction
(c) Nerve conduction
(d) All of the above
(e) None of the above

5. The following derivatives of retinal shows the greatest biological potency than others
(a) 9-Cis-retinoic acid (b) All-trans-retinoic acid
(c) All-trans-retinol (d) 11-Cis-retinal

6. The drug used for controlling tetany is
(a) Intravenous diazepam
(b) Intramuscular vitamin D
(c) Intravenous calcium gluconate
(d) Intravenous calcitonin

7. Absorption of oral iron preparations can be facilitated by coadministering
(a) Antacids (b) Tetracyclines
(c) Phosphates (d) Ascorbic acid

8. The gut controls the entry of ingested iron in the body of
(a) Regulating the availability of apoferritin which acts as the carrier of iron across the mucosal cell
(b) Regulating the turnover of apoferritin-ferritin interconversion in the mucosal cell
(c) Complexing excess iron to form ferritin which remains stored in the mucosal cell and is shed off
(d) Regulating the number of transferring receptors on the mucosal cell

9. The percentage of elemental iron hydrated ferrous sulfate is
(a) 5% (b) 10%
(c) 20% (d) 33%

10. In isolated fibroblast or epithelial cells, retinoids enhance the synthesis of following protein
(a) Fibronectin
(b) Collagenase
(c) Certain species of keratin
(d) All of the above

1. a 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. c 6. c 7. d 8. c 9. c 10. a

MCQs Nutrition - Vitamins

1. Thiamine is vitamin
(a) B1 (b) B2
(c) B6 (d) B12

2. The iron stored in intestinal mucosal cells is complexed to
(a) Ferritin (b) Intrinsic factor
(c) Oprelvekin (d) Transcobalamin II
(e) Transferrin

3. Which of the following is most likely to be required by a 5-year-old boy with chronic renal in sufficiency?
(a) Erythropoietin (b) G-CSF
(c) Interleukin – 11 (d) Stem cell factor
(e) Thrombopoietin

4. in adults, approximately ______ mg of thiamine per day is completely degraded by the tissue
(a) 0.01 (b) 0.1
(c) 1 (d) 10

5. The drug of choice for the management of osteoporosis caused by high-dose use of glucocorticoids is
(a) Alendronate (b) Calcitonin
(c) Mestranol (d) Oxandrolone
(e) Vitamin D

6. Which of the following drugs is correctly associated with its clinical application?
(a) Erythropoietin : Macrocytic anemia
(b) Filgrastim : Thrombocytopenia due to myelocytic leukemia
(c) Iron dextran : Severe macrocytic anemia
(d) Ferrous sulfate : Microcytic anemia of pregnancy
(e) Folic acid : Hemochromatosis

7. Conversion of methionine to cysteine depends on vitamin
(a) B1 (b) B2
(c) B6 (d) B12

8. Avidin, a protein found in egg white is an antagonist of
(a) Biotin (b) Pantothenic acid
(c) Choline (d) Pyridoxal

9. All of the following are important functions of magnesium (Mg) except
(a) Nerve conduction
(b) Phospholipid synthesis
(c) Muscle contractility
(d) Carbohydrate, fat, and electrolyte metabolism

10. Factors likely to cause an increase in the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level include
(a) Intramuscular (IM)injection of diazepam  (Valium)
(b) Severe liver disease
(c) Chronic kidney disease

1. c 2. a 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. d 7. c 8. a 9. b 10. c

MCQs Molecular Biology - Section 2

1. A gene that takes part in the synthesis of polypeptide is
a. Structural gene b. Regulator gene
c. Operator gene d. Promoter gene

2. DNA replicates during
a. G1 – phase b. S – phase
c. G2 – phase d. M – phase

3. A human cell containing 22 autosome and a ‘Y’ chromosome is probably a
a. Male somatic cell
b. Zygote
c. Female somatic cell
d. Sperm cell

4. Crossing-over most commonly occurs during
a. Prophase I b. Prophase II
c. Anaphase I d. Telophase II

5. DNA-replication is by the mechanism of
a. Conservative b. Semiconservative
c. Dispersive d. None of the above

6. Production of RNA from DNA is called
a. Translation b. RNA splicing
c. Transcription d. Transposition

7. Nucleic acids contain
a. Alanine b. Adenine
c. Lysine d. Arginine

8. What are the structural units of nucleic acids?
a. N-bases b. Nucleosides
c. Nucleotides d. Histones

9. The most important function of a gene is to synthesize
a. Enzymes b. Hormones
c. RNA d. DNA

10. One of the genes present exclusively on the X-chromosome in humans is concerned with
a. Baldness
b. Red-green colour baldness
c. Facial hair/moustache in males
d. Night blindness

1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. c 9. a 10. b

MCQs Molecular Biology - Section 1

1. The technique involved in comparing the DNA components of two samples is known as
a. Monoclonal antibody techniques
b. Genetic finger printing
c. Recombinant DNA technology
d. Polymerase chain reaction

2. Plasmids are ideal vectors for gene cloning as
a. They can be multiplied by culturing
b. They can be multiplied in the laboratory using enzymes
c. They can replicate freely outside the bacterial cell
d. They are self replicating within the bacterial cell

3. Humans normally have 46 chromosomes in skin cells. How many autosomes would be expected in a kidney cell?
a. 46 b. 23
c. 47 d. 44

4. Pasteur effect is due to
a. Change from aerobic to anaerobic
b. Providing oxygen to anaerobically respiring structures
c. Rapid utilization of ATP
d. Nonsynthesis of ATP

5. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
a. Trans location b. Inversion
c. Crossing over d. Duplication

6. The smallest unit of genetic material that can undergo mutation is called
a. Gene b. Cistron
c. Replicon d. Muton

7. The two chromatids of metaphase chrosome represent
a. Replicated chromosomes to be separated at anaphase
b. Homologous chromosomes of a diploid set
c. Non-homologous chromosomes joined at the centromere
d. Maternal and paternal chromosomes joined at the centromere

8. Malate dehydrogenase enzyme is a
a. Transferase b. Hydrolase
c. Isomerase d. Oxido reductase

9. In E.Coli att site is in between
a. Gal and biogenes
b. Bio and niacin genes
c. Gal and B genes
d. None of these

10. The best vector for gene cloning
a. Relaxed control plasmid
b. Stringent control plasmid
c. Both a and b
d. None of these

1. b 2. d 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. d 7. a 8. d 9. a 10. a

MCQs Molecular Biology

1. A peculiar cytochrome is observed in bacteria and it can react with molecular oxygen, what is it?
a. Cyt b b. Cyt c
c. Cyt d d. Cyt o

2. The genetic material in HIV is
a. ds DNA b. ss DNA
c. s RNA d. None of these

3. Which one of the following mutagens act only on replicating DNA?
a. Ethidium bromide
b. Nitrosogeranidine
c. Acridine orange
d. None of above

4. Poly A tail is frequently found in
a. Histone in RNA b. Bacterial RNA
c. eukaryotic RNA d. TRNA

5. Which of the following is an example of RNA virus?
a. SV 40
b. T4 phage
c. Tobacco mosaic virus
d. Adeno virus

6. Genomic DNA is extracted, broken into fragments of reasonable size by a restriction endonuclease and then inserted into a cloning vector to generate chimeric vectors. The cloned fragments are called
a. Clones b. Genomic library
c. mRNA d. None of these

7. Transgenic animals are produced when GH gene fused with
a. MT gene b. GH
c. GRF d. FIX

8. In which medium the hydridoma cells grow selectively?
a. Polyethylene glycol
b. Hypoxanthine aminopterin thyminine
c. Hypoxathing-guaning phosphoribosyl transferase
d. Both b and c

9. The enzymes which are commonly used in genetic engineering are
a. Exonuclease and ligase
b. Restriction endonuclease and polymerase
c. Ligase and polymerase
d. Restriction endonuclease and ligase

10. A successful hybridoma was produced by fusing
a. Plasma cells and plasmids
b. Plasma cells and myeloma cells
c. Myeloma cells and plasmids
d. Plasma cells and bacterial cells

1. d 2. a 3. c 4. c 5. c 6. b 7. a 8. b 9. a 10. b